In the name of ALLAH, the most beneficient, the most merciful

Software Engineering - II (CS605)

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

Objective Questions

  1. Quality cost may be divided into costs associated with:

    1. Prevention, appraisal and failure
    2. Customers, developers and maintenance
    3. Builds, releases and products
    4. Bugs, errors and Reports
  2. Quality assurance helps management in providing the necessary data about:

    1. Product quality
    2. Errors/bugs left
    3. Errors/bugs highlighted
    4. Defect reports
  3. If an error related to requirements is identified in testing phase, this error will be considered as an error of ___________ phase.

    1. Requirement
    2. Design
    3. Code
    4. Testing
  4. Which of the following is not TRUE about "Error Tracking"?

    1. Error tracking can be used to estimate the progress of the project.
    2. We track errors in work products to assess the status of a project.
    3. During "Error Tracking", we may also need the historical data from similar projects.
    4. All of the given
  5. ________ is one of the techniques used during severe deadline pressure.

    1. PERT
    2. CPM
    3. Time Boxing
    4. Macroscopic scheduling
  6. BCWP refers to:

    1. Normalized value of budgeted cost
    2. Overall expected cost of the project (anticipated cost)
    3. Budgeted cost of work performed so far
    4. Overall cost of the project (calculated after completion of project)
  7. BCWS for a task i will be equal to:

    1. Risks appeared in task i
    2. Effort (person-days etc) for task i
    3. Resource deficiency for task i
    4. None of the given
  8. Schedule Performance Index (SPI) is equal to

    1. BCWP / BCWS
    2. BCWP * BCWS
    3. BCWP + BCWS
    4. BCWP - BCWS
  9. BCWS stands for:

    1. Beginning Cost of Whole System
    2. Budgeted Cost of Whole System
    3. Budgeted Cost of Work Schedule
    4. None of the given
  10. Earned Value Analysis (EVA) is a ______ technique for assessing the progress of a project.

    1. Qualitative
    2. Quantitative
    3. Subjective
    4. None of the given
  11. Critical path defines:

    1. The list of the resources that may be needed for future activities.
    2. The chain of tasks that determines the duration of the project.
    3. The list of the deficient resources, project is suffering from.
    4. None of the given
  12. CPM stands for:

    1. Critical Project Measure
    2. Critical Path Method
    3. Common Project Measure
    4. Critical Planning Model
  13. The boundary time defines the following parameter(s) for a project:

    1. The latest time for task initiation before the minimum project completion time is delayed
    2. The earliest finish
    3. The latest finish
    4. All of the given
  14. ________ is one of the techniques to prepare project schedule once we have defined "task network"

    1. Program evaluation and review techniques (PERT)
    2. Critical Communication path method (CCPM)
    3. System resource negotiation method (SRNM)
    4. Strategic Schedule Development technique (SSDT)
  15. The progress on a project at any given point in time can be calculated by:

    1. Adding all the BCWS till that point for all tasks
    2. Multiplying all the BCWS till that point for all tasks
    3. Adding BCWS and EVA for all tasks till that point
    4. None of the given
  16. Defining a "Task Network" helps in defining:

    1. Cost the project
    2. The resources required for project
    3. Third party tools required for project
    4. Sequence in which activities will be performed
  17. FTR stands for:

    1. Feasibility of technical requirement
    2. Fetched Technical Requirement
    3. Formal Technical Review
    4. None of the given
  18. The more you refine the tasks, the more you can:

    1. Estimate task with accuracy
    2. Conclude about scope with accuracy
    3. Schedule the project with accuracy
    4. All of the given
  19. Earned Value Analysis (EVA) is a ________ technique for assessing the progress of a project.

    1. Qualitative
    2. Quantitative
    3. Subjective
    4. None of the given
  20. Following are effective guidelines for Review EXCEPT

    1. We need to review the product not the producer
    2. Be sensitive to personal egos
    3. Errors should be pointed out gently
    4. Tone should be high and strict
  21. BAC stands for:

    1. Budgeted Analysis Cost
    2. Budget And Cost
    3. Budget at compilation
    4. Budget at Completion
  22. MTTF is the abbreviation of

    1. Median time to failure
    2. Mean time to failure
    3. Mean time to forward
    4. Moderate time to failure
  23. In order to use the PERT and CPM, which one of the following is NOT required?

    1. Decomposition of tasks - also known as the work breakdown structure (WBS).
    2. Teams communication mode details.
    3. Estimation of effort.
    4. Interdependencies.
  24. Mean Time Between Failure (MTBF) can be calculated by:

    1. MTBF=MTTF+MTTR
    2. MTBF=MTTF-MTTR
    3. MTBF=(MTTF/MTTR)* 100
    4. MTBF=(MTTR/MTTF)* 100
  25. The equation to find out the Availability of software is:

    1. Availability = (MTTF x MTBF) / 100
    2. Availability = (MTTF / MTBF) x 100
    3. Availability = (MTTF + MTBF) x 100
    4. Availability = (MTTF - MTBF) x 100
  26. SQA is an umbrella activity in which following activities are performed EXCEPT

    1. Review
    2. Testing
    3. Project Planning
    4. Inspection
  27. Milestone represents:

    1. A predictable risk that may hit the project
    2. An unpredictable risk that may hit the project
    3. The Loss that organization may suffer due to risk
    4. The defined target which you need to achieve
  28. A system is considered to be a legacy system if it has been in operation for ________ years. A legacy system has many components.

    1. Less than seven
    2. Many
    3. More than two
    4. Less than ten
  29. Which of the following is incorrect?

    1. Traditional wisdom states that the cost of fixing a fault grows rapidly in later phases of the SDLC.
    2. The defect reduction model reduces faults through stringent quality assurance activities at each phase of the SDLC.
    3. Most faults are introduced during the coding phase
    4. Agile practices claim that the cost of fixing a fault is essentially the same throughout SDLC.
  30. Which of the following is NOT an example of Software Configuration Item (SCI):

    1. Test Case
    2. Integration Plan
    3. Design specification
    4. None of the given.
  31. Configuration Status Reporting (CSR) reports on

    1. What happened?
    2. Who did it?
    3. When did it happen?
    4. All of the given
  32. A major issue in requirements engineering is the rate at at which requirements change once the requirements phase has "officially" ________.

    1. Approved
    2. Deleted
    3. Ended
    4. None of the given
  33. The software reengineering is a ________ activity.

    1. Code
    2. Out dated
    3. Document
    4. Non-trivial
  34. ________ engineering for software is a process for analyzing a program in an effort to create a representation of the program at a higher level abstraction than the source code.

    1. Reserve
    2. Forward
    3. BPR
    4. None of the given
  35. Configuration Auditing deals with:

    1. Ensuring that Resources have been allocated properly.
    2. Ensuring that changes are implemented parallel with SDLC framework activities.
    3. Ensuring that the changes have been implemented properly
    4. All of the given
  36. ________ engineering requires application of SE principles, methods, and concepts to re-create an existing application.

    1. Reserve
    2. Forward
    3. BPR
    4. None of the given
  37. ________ engineering does not simply create a modern equivalent of an older program, rather new user and technology requirements are integrated into the reengineering effort.

    1. Forward
    2. BPR
    3. Reverse
    4. None of the given
  38. ________ technique was initially developed for manufacturing processes in the 1920’s by Walter Shewart.

    1. Upper Control Line
    2. Contorl chart
    3. CMP
    4. Quality
  39. Control charts are of following two types:

    1. Moving range control charts and Individual control charts
    2. Moving range control charts and statical control charts
    3. Individual control charts and statical control charts
    4. None of the given options
  40. In context of "Individual control chart", if a single metrics value lies outside UNPL, it means that:

    1. The process has been matured
    2. The process is not mature yet
    3. Process is out of control
    4. Process is within control
  41. In context of moving range and individual control charts, UNPL stands for:

    1. Universal Natural Process Line
    2. Universal Natural Process Limit
    3. Upper Natural Process Limit
    4. Upper Natural Process Line
  42. When more than one users interpret the same requirement in different ways then we can say that the requirement is:

    1. None of the given
    2. Incomplete
    3. Ambiguous
    4. Incorrect
  43. Identify the most appropriate statement:

    1. The quality of the software specification is of extreme importance.
    2. The non functional requirements can be skipped.
    3. The non functional requirements does not impact the quality of product.
    4. None of the given options.
  44. We need to employ some statistical techniques and plot the results __________. These are known as statistical control techniques.

    1. Graphically
    2. Automatically
    3. Manually
    4. Personally
  45. For a software the total number of requirements are equal to ________.

    1. Functional requirements
    2. Non functional requirements
    3. Functional requirements + non functional requirements
    4. None of the given options
  46. ________ is the measure of how many defects are removed by the quality assurance processes before the product is shipped for operation.

    1. Removal Deficiency
    2. Defect removal efficiency
    3. Bug Report
    4. Bug Tracking Algorithm
  47. Extent to which access to software or data by unauthorized persons can be controlled, is called _______.

    1. None of given
    2. Efficiency
    3. Reliability
    4. Integrity
  48. The extent to which a program can be reused in other applications is called ________.

    1. Reliability
    2. Performance
    3. Usability
    4. Reusability
  49. Quality can be measured if we measure the _____ of the product.

    1. correctness
    2. maintainability
    3. integrity and usability
    4. All of the given options
  50. The amount of "computing resources", required by a program to perform its function is __________.

    1. Efficiency
    2. Integrity
    3. Reliability
    4. None of given
  51. Effort required to test a program to ensure that it performs its intended function ________.

    1. Testability
    2. Bug fixing
    3. Debugging
    4. Security
  52. Extent to which access to software or data by unauthorized persons can be controlled, is called ________.

    1. None of given
    2. Efficiency
    3. Reliability
    4. Integrity
  53. Defect removal efficiency is calculated as: Where E = errors found before delivery D = errors found after delivery (typically within the first year of operation)

    1. DRE = E/(E+D)
    2. DRE = E + D
    3. DRE = E + D/E
    4. DRE = E/D - E
  54. Defects per function points is a ________.

    1. Measure
    2. Metric
    3. Quality attribute
    4. Process
  55. A ________ provides a quantitative value of some attribute of a process or a product.

    1. Metric
    2. Measure
    3. Function point
    4. Plan