Principles of Biochemical Engineering (BIO204)

1. While constructing the fermenter, which of the following is not required?

   1. High-speed Agitation and Aeration system
   2. Temperature control system
   3. pH control system
   4. Sample facilities

2. The purpose of aeration is to provide ________.

   1. The medium to organisms
   2. The carbon dioxide to organisms
   3. The oxygen to organisms
   4. The water to organisms

3. The Aeration is mainly provided to organisms present in ________.

   1. Submerged culture
   2. Solid State culture
   3. Surface culture
   4. Batch culture

4. Collins hazard group criteria did not include ________.

   1. The ease of prophylaxis and treatment
   2. The routes of infection
   3. The pathogenicity of a microorganism
   4. The reproductive cycle of a microorganism

5. Suspended solids may be separated from a fluid during filtration by how many methods?

   1. 2
   2. 1
   3. 4
   4. 3

6. Micro-organisms can be damaged due to ________ in a fermenter.

   1. Power consumption
   2. Agitation
   3. pH
   4. Evaporation

7. Which carbon source has great application for SCP production?

   1. Cellulose
   2. Starch
   3. Methanol
   4. Methane

8. Which of the following is related to industrial-scale fermenter?

   1. Ex-situ sterilization but seed fermenter is not required for inoculums development.
   2. In-situ sterilization and seed fermenter is required for inoculums development.
   3. In-situ sterilization but seed fermenter is not required for inoculums development.
   4. Ex-situ sterilization and seed fermenter is required for inoculums development.

9. In some cases a combination of direct and indirect heat exchangers may be used. This is especially true for what type of broths

   1. protein-containing broths
   2. wax-containing broths
   3. water-containing broths
   4. starch-containing broths

10. Which of the following material is preferable for the construction of small-scale fermenter?

    1. Quartz
    2. Glass
    3. Iron steel
    4. Wood

11. The heat exchangers are used to ________.

    1. Maintain high temperature
    2. Maintain low temperature
    3. Maintain low pressure
    4. Maintain high pressure

12. Sterile compressed air for a fermenter should be of ________ atmospheres.

    1. 2.5 to 3.0
    2. 1.5 to 3.0
    3. 3.0 to 3.5
    4. 1.0 to 2.5

13. In a fermenter ________ is involved for air supply.

    1. Baffels
    2. Sparger
    3. Agitator
    4. Microprocessor

14. What is the term used for a cross in which two contrasting traits are studied at a time?

    1. dihybrid cross
    2. monohybrid cross
    3. genotype
    4. phenotype

15. Which of the following is not the use of baffles?

    1. Increase the effect of agitation
    2. Improve aeration efficiency
    3. Improve cooling capacity
    4. Improve the fermenter capacity

16. From the data of Deindoerfer and Humphrey (1961) the specific death rate of B, stearothermophilus spores at ________ is ________.

    1. 121°C, 2.54 min-1
    2. 100°C, 1.54 min-1
    3. 111°C, 2.54 min-1
    4. 110°C, 1.54 min-1

17. The length of the holding period is dictated by the length of the coil and the flow rate of the ________?

    1. medium
    2. environment
    3. heat
    4. pH

18. Which of the following is a fabricated material used for the construction of a fermentation vessel?

    1. Wood
    2. Ceramics
    3. Stone
    4. Gourds

19. During sterilization steam pressure is held at 15 psi in the vessel for approximately ________ minutes.

    1. 30-35 minutes
    2. 50 min to 1 hr
    3. 20 minutes
    4. 10-15 minutes

20. The largest diameter for glass fermenter is ________.

    1. 50 cm
    2. 70 cm
    3. 60 cm
    4. 80 cm

21. Fermenters with single multi-blade impellers for Steel and Maxon (1961) model heve Liquid height (L) ________.

    1. 15cm
    2. 35cm
    3. 27cm
    4. 55cm

22. The use of the Del factor in the scale up of batch sterilization processes has been discussed by Banks in ________.

    1. 1979
    2. 1978
    3. 1977
    4. 1976

23. What led to the development of Walhof-type fermenter?

    1. Yeast growth
    2. Bacterial growth
    3. Viral growth
    4. Fungi growth

24. Which of the metal is used to make stainless steel?

    1. Cr
    2. Pb
    3. Mn
    4. Fe

25. Which of the following element does not enhances the property of stainless steel?

    1. Nickel
    2. Molybdenum
    3. Silicone
    4. Manganese

26. Fermenters with single multi-blade impellers for Steel and Maxon (1961) model heve operating volume ________.

    1. 25L
    2. 125L
    3. 200L
    4. 250L

27. Which of the following is not the type of modern agitator?

    1. SCABA
    2. Prochem Maxflo
    3. Lightning A315
    4. New Brunswick Scientific

28. Aerobic fermentations require the continuous addition of considerable quantities of ________?

    1. sterile light
    2. sterile proteins
    3. sterile air
    4. sterile water

29. Media for animal-cell culture cannot be sterilized by steam because they contain ________?

    1. heat-labile proteins
    2. heat-labile wood
    3. heat-labile wax
    4. heat-labile food

30. The fermenter would be spared the corrosion which may occur with medium at ________.

    1. high temperature
    2. Low temperature
    3. Medium temperature
    4. Moderate temperature

31. The most suitable indirect heat exchangers are of ________?

    1. single-spiral
    2. double-spiral
    3. tetra-spiral
    4. hexa-spiral

32. Which scientist(s) geve a full kinetic description of external and internal feedback system?

    1. Monod
    2. Pirt
    3. Bull
    4. Harte and Webb

33. The AISI grade 316 contains ________ amount of chromium.15 %

    1. 15%
    2. 18%
    3. 20%
    4. 18.50%

34. Some form of pretreatment of the exhaust gas is necessary before it enters the absolute filter. This pretreatment may be a hydrophobic prefilter or a mechanical separator to remove water, aerosol particles and foam.

    1. heat filter
    2. absolute filter
    3. glass filter
    4. constant filter

Select a course code for Objective Questions:

ACC311 ACC501 BIF101 BIF401 BIF501 BIO101 BIO201 BIO202 BIO203 BIO204 BIO301 BIO302 BIO303 BIO401 BIO503 BNK603 BT101 BT201 BT301 BT302 BT401 BT402 BT403 BT404 BT405 BT406 BT501 BT504 BT505 BT604 CHE201 CHE301 CS001 CS101 CS201 CS202 CS204 CS301 CS302 CS304 CS311 CS401 CS402 CS403 CS408 CS501 CS502 CS504 CS506 CS508 CS601 CS602 CS604 CS605 CS607 CS609 CS610 CS614 CS707 CS710 ECO401 ECO402 ECO403 ECO404 EDU302 EDU401 EDU402 EDU501 EDU601 ENG101 ENG201 ENG301 ENG501 FIN611 FIN624 FIN625 ISL201 IT430 MCM101 MCM301 MGMT623 MGT101 MGT211 MGT301 MGT401 MGT402 MGT501 MGT502 MGT503 MGT510 MGT601 MGT603 MKT501 MKT610 MKT630 MTH101 MTH202 MTH302 MTH501 MTH601 MTH634 PAK301 PHY101 PHY301 PSY101 PSY403 PSY502 PSY512 SOC101 SOC301 SOC401 STA301 STA630 STA641 ZOO102 ZOO401 ZOO501 ZOO502 ZOO503 ZOO504 ZOO505 ZOO506 ZOO510 ZOO630

Select a course code for Subjective Questions:

ACC311 CS001 CS101 CS201 CS301 CS607 CS701 CS702 CS703 CS704 CS707 CS708 CS710 CS711 CS718 CS721 CS724 ECO401 ECO403 ENG101 ENG301 MGT703 MTH501 STA301