Introduction to Biotechnology (BT301)

1. In chromosome jumping, the DNA of interest is identified, cut into fragments with restriction enzymes and

   1. Straighten
   2. Breaks down
   3. Elongates
   4. Circularized

2. Major screening strategies involve ________.

   1. Genetic methods
   2. Sequence-dependent screenings
   3. Screening expression libraries
   4. All of the given

3. Immunochemical screening involves the use of

   1. PCR
   2. Antigens
   3. Antibodies
   4. DNA

4. cDNA is sequence which lacks ________ sequences.

   1. introns
   2. exons
   3. untraslated exons
   4. exons only

5. Genomic DNA library is constructed using ________ cloning vectors.

   1. low capacity
   2. high capacity
   3. low copy number
   4. low copy and capacity

6. Chromosome Walking, In human genome, the starting point may be

   1. Cleaved Amplified Polymorphic Sequence (CAPS)
   2. single-nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs)
   3. restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP)
   4. Amplified fragment length polymorphism (AFLP)

7. Synthesis of cDNA from RNA is done using ________.

   1. RT-PCR
   2. inverse-PCR
   3. reverse-PCR
   4. qPCR

8. ________ depends upon transcription of appropriate gene, efficient translation of mRNA and in many cases, post-translational processing and compartmentalization of nascent polypeptide.

   1. Synthesis of genome
   2. Synthesis of functional DNA
   3. Synthesis of functional RNA
   4. Synthesis of functional protein

9. If DNA library is established using expressionvectors, each individual clone can be expressed to yield a

   1. Dipeptide
   2. Monopeptide
   3. Polypeptide
   4. Nucleotide

10. In South-western and north-western blotting screening is carried out without using an antibody, by incubating the membranes with

    1. Radiolabelled double stranded DNA probe
    2. Radiolabelled double stranded RNA probe
    3. Radiolabelled single stranded DNA probe
    4. Unlabelled double stranded DNA probe

11. Functional complementation is also possible in

    1. Artificial animals and plants
    2. Non-Transgenic animals and plants
    3. Transgenic animals and plants
    4. Transgenic mitochondria

12. To isolate specific clone, PCR is carried out with gene-specific primers

    1. gene-specific primers
    2. simple primers
    3. special primers
    4. universal primers

13. For ________ libraries, the correct orientation can be achieved by self-priming method by adding linker molecule to double stranded cDNA

    1. protein expression
    2. mRNA expression
    3. genome expression
    4. cDNA expression

14. A great advantage of hybridization for library screening is that it is

    1. Difficult
    2. Versatile
    3. Good
    4. Unique

15. cDNA library is representative of the ________ population of the derived host

    1. RNA
    2. DNA
    3. DNA & RNA
    4. proteins

16. In Chain termination method, we rely on ________ capabilities of DNA polymerase enzyme.

    1. Two
    2. Three
    3. Four
    4. Five

17. The methylation of Guanine at N-7 position in Maxam-Gilbert method is done by using ________.

    1. Formic acid
    2. Hydrazine
    3. Dimethyl sulphate
    4. Piperidine

18. If the amino acid sequence changes from Cysteine to ________, it can increase the stability of the expressed protein.

    1. Glycine
    2. Serine
    3. Valine
    4. Lysine

19. Among the following, ________ act as chain terminator in the Chain termination method.

    1. Dideoxynucleotides
    2. DNA
    3. Deoxynucleotides
    4. Exogenous

20. The high expression of insulin leads to the accumulation of aggregation of target proteins known as ________.

    1. Immunoglobulins
    2. Hormones
    3. Inclusion bodies
    4. Proteases

21. The rate of synthesis of a particular protein will depend on the

    1. Mobile-state of mRNA
    2. Steady-state of DNA
    3. Steady-state of rRNA
    4. Steady-state of mRNA

22. The principle of Chain termination method relies on ________.

    1. Use of chemicals for base specific cleavage
    2. Use of dNTPs for chain termination
    3. Use of ddNTPs for chain termination
    4. Use of Phosphorous-32 for chain termination

23. The loss of plasmids due to defective partitioning is called

    1. Segregative stability
    2. Segregative instability
    3. Non-segregative instability
    4. Non-segregative stability

24. Which of the following is called as dideoxynucleotide chain termination method?

    1. Sanger's method
    2. Maxam-Gilbert method
    3. Edman's method
    4. Automated sequencing method

25. Chain termination method was developed by Sanger et al. in ________.

    1. 1975
    2. 1976
    3. 1977
    4. 1978

26. ________ was the first mapping technique used in physical mapping?

    1. RFLP mapping
    2. STS mapping
    3. Happy mapping
    4. RH mapping

27. Physical Mapping was devised to check ________ between physical and linkage mapping?

    1. Similarity
    2. Correlation
    3. Dissimilarity
    4. All of the given

28. Amplified fragment length polymorphisms (AFLP) detects genomic restriction fragments and in that respect resembles to ________ technique?

    1. Happy Mapping
    2. STS mapping
    3. SNPs Mapping
    4. RFLP mapping

29. Which of the following technique is used for Haploid genome mapping?

    1. RH Mapping
    2. Happy Mapping
    3. STS Mapping
    4. AFLP Mapping

30. What should be the GC content of the primers used for RAPDs (Random amplified polymorphic DNA)?

    1. 50-80%
    2. 20%
    3. 30-40%
    4. 0-10%

31. For the detection of single base nucleotide substitution, whic of the following mapping should be used?

    1. SNP mapping
    2. RFLP mapping
    3. RH mapping
    4. Happy mapping

32. In order to differentiate the rare mutations from SNPs (single nucleotide polymorphism) the allele frequencies should be?

    1. 0.5%
    2. 1% or high
    3. 0.1%
    4. 0%

33. In Sequenced tag site (STS) mapping, which of the following is not used?

    1. Southern blotting
    2. Restriction endonucleases
    3. Probes
    4. All of the given

34. Which of the following technique resembles with Amplified fragment length polymorphisms (AFLP) technique that detects genomic restriction fragments?

    1. RFLP (Restriction fragment lebgth polymorphism) technique
    2. SNPs (single nucleotide polymorphism) technique
    3. PCR (polymerase chain reaction) technique
    4. STS (sequenced tag sites) technique

35. In which of the following techniques Fluorescence microscopy is used to find out the fluorescent probe bound to the chromosomes?

    1. ALFP Mapping
    2. RFLP Mapping
    3. FISH (Flourescent insitu Hybradization)
    4. Happy Mapping

36. Which of the following is a cytogenic technique of genome mapping?

    1. ALFP Mapping
    2. RFLP Mapping
    3. FISH (Flourescent insitu hybradization)
    4. Happy Mapping

37. Any Fragment in the genome can be used for STS mapping if it is ________?

    1. Unique sequence
    2. Polymorphic sequence
    3. Homologous sequence
    4. Universal Sequence

38. Maps that provide specified detail about the number of bases and distance that exists between genetic markers are ________?

    1. Physical Maps
    2. Genetic Maps
    3. Linkage Maps
    4. All of the given

39. Which of the following Mapping technique is based on the analysis of approximately Haploids samples using the Polymerase chain reaction?

    1. RH Mapping
    2. Genetic linkage mapping
    3. STS Mapping
    4. Happy Mapping

40. What should be the approximate length of the primers used for RAPDs (Random amplified polymorphic DNA?

    1. 10 bps
    2. 18-20 bps
    3. 22-30 bps
    4. >30 bps

41. RFLP mapping is based on restriction-site ________ between ________ chromosomes?

    1. Variation, homologous
    2. No Variations, homologous
    3. Variation, Non-homologous
    4. No Variations, Non-homologous

42. Which of the following statements are true regarding Fluorescence in situ hybridization (FISH)?

    1. It is a cytogenetic technique
    2. It uses fluorescent probes
    3. Fluorescent probes bind directly to the chromosomes
    4. All of the given

43. Which of the following is used as a Landmark for physical map integration of genome?

    1. Genetic Markers
    2. Morphological Markers
    3. Number of Nucleotides
    4. All of the given

44. RH mapping can be used to identify ________?

    1. Locus of a gene
    2. Distances between different sites within a gene
    3. Distances between genes
    4. All of the given

Select a course code for Objective Questions:

ACC311 ACC501 BIF101 BIF401 BIF501 BIO101 BIO201 BIO202 BIO203 BIO204 BIO301 BIO302 BIO303 BIO401 BIO503 BNK603 BT101 BT201 BT301 BT302 BT401 BT402 BT403 BT404 BT405 BT406 BT501 BT504 BT505 BT604 CHE201 CHE301 CS001 CS101 CS201 CS202 CS204 CS301 CS302 CS304 CS311 CS401 CS402 CS403 CS408 CS501 CS502 CS504 CS506 CS508 CS601 CS602 CS604 CS605 CS607 CS609 CS610 CS614 CS707 CS710 ECO401 ECO402 ECO403 ECO404 EDU302 EDU401 EDU402 EDU501 EDU601 ENG101 ENG201 ENG301 ENG501 FIN611 FIN624 FIN625 ISL201 IT430 MCM101 MCM301 MGMT623 MGT101 MGT211 MGT301 MGT401 MGT402 MGT501 MGT502 MGT503 MGT510 MGT601 MGT603 MKT501 MKT610 MKT630 MTH101 MTH202 MTH302 MTH501 MTH601 MTH634 PAK301 PHY101 PHY301 PSY101 PSY403 PSY502 PSY512 SOC101 SOC301 SOC401 STA301 STA630 STA641 ZOO102 ZOO401 ZOO501 ZOO502 ZOO503 ZOO504 ZOO505 ZOO506 ZOO510 ZOO630

Select a course code for Subjective Questions:

ACC311 CS001 CS101 CS201 CS301 CS607 CS701 CS702 CS703 CS704 CS707 CS708 CS710 CS711 CS718 CS721 CS724 ECO401 ECO403 ENG101 ENG301 MGT703 MTH501 STA301